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You don't know, what you don't know..       #: 199
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 Posted: Sun Nov 19th, 2017 04:58 am
 
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I've noticed a fair share of "distinguished" experiences within this sites culture and seen more people on a similar or same page mentality.

With that I believe in the power of the people

With that it is my belief as the forefathers did in the sense that you can't control what you didn't create. Therefore I believe as it has been written in the three most prestigious documents known to this country and others that it is God, man, and then governments that benefit.

So where I don't find this to be a post of political party(s) but a post of political issues and information, lets keep the relevance to relevant things outside of such parties with exception of those things used in reference. I DO NOT want to engage myself or others into a Flame-war of my political affiliation is better than yours argument but rather focus on things we take for granted as truths when they may not be.

I want to create a viable source of information for people to not necessarily take my own word for things but spend the time to research your own conclusions and ideas to formulate your OWN informed opinion.

As the OP, I cannot say I won't be posting items of the utmost "controversy" to your beliefs or even upbringing but I figure if there's a way to leave it out of other posts and contain it here within a single post, so it shall.

NOTES:
  • IF you are stating FACTS, please cite your resources, otherwise they will be taken as YOUR opinion
  • IF you are CITING resources, please try to make sure they are credible, otherwise they will be construed as parroted opinions of others
  • IF you don't have a methodology of taking new information with an open mind and using that information to further research shared information, this thread will go to a  -storm very quickly and defeats the purpose of the threads true intent
  • IF you are easily offended by freedom of thought, this thread may not suit your fancy either
  • I ENCOURAGE positive thoughts and critical thinking, simply shouting [CAPS LOCK WHAT] louder doesn't mean you're any more right or wrong but it does show your abilities to NOT engage in proper dialog.
  • Name calling blatantly will not be a just cause or answer and very limited in tolerance, should you have a disbelief in something; call it out and discuss why and where your information came from.
  • Dis-credatation is not a justifiable means of proving someone wrong by your opinions, show your work not your opinion(s) so others may see an error on their part and also engage in taking new information to correct their assertions

So I am putting it out there now that if it turns out we cannot be adults, that I would hope that the mods would NOT destroy any valuable information found within and clean up the last verbal transgression and just lock it down whether temporarily or for all time.

Although the course of the material may seem to/or NOT correlate from post to post or topic to topic. There is likely small to NO order to things as that cannot be controlled by interests of following posters or the OP's intent to keep the thread from failure to interest others.

I think the freedom of speech and thoughts can be had at a table of capable minds in an around the campfire, beer bottle toasting, man to man, conversation.. Join us?

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

With That..


The Expatriation Act of 1868 was an act of the 40th United States Congress regarding the right to renounce one's citizenship. ... Its intent was to counter other countries' claims that U.S. citizens owed them allegiance; it was an explicit rejection of the feudal common law principle of perpetual allegiance.
The United States was founded by the act of expatriation of citizens from England, but ironically the U.S. itself actually did not grant its own citizens the right to renounce citizenship.
There is no right to expatriation in either the Declaration of Independence, the Constitution or early federal laws.

Until the the mid-19th century, the United States implicitly followed the English common-law tradition of “perpetual allegiance,” [img]https://i0.wp.com/web.archive.org/web/20120919020935im_/http://renunciationguide.com/Images/Picture_06.jpg?resize=182%2C272[/img]a feudal concept in which all natural-born citizens are considered to inherit upon birth a debt of obligation to the country in which they are born for the state protection they receive.
Because this feudal debt of obligation can never be canceled, the citizen can never relinquish his citizenship.
The irony of the U.S. following a system of “perpetual allegiance” was not unnoticed by lawmakers at the time. On the one hand, the U.S. welcomed and protected immigrants who expatriated from their countries. On the other hand, the U.S. itself continued to follow a medieval concept prohibiting expatriation.
In 1868, Congress passed a law to rectify the situation and explicitly endorsed “the right of expatriation”.
Praising expatriation as “a natural and inherent right of all people”, Congress declared in 1868 that any act of the government which “denies, restricts, impairs, or questions the right of expatriation” is “inconsistent with the fundamental principles of this government.”
The language in this law clearly recognizes the “right to expatriate”. It's important to note, though, that this act does not create a “right” in the legal sense. It's not a right similar to free speech, practice of religion, etc. It's not written into the Constitution. And although it can't be known with certainty until tested, it seems fairly likely that Congress could revoke this “right” at any time and permanently ban renunciation of citizenship. The Constitution gives Congress the power to establish rules of granting citizenship (naturalization), so they presumably also have the implicit power to determine the rules of taking it away (expatriation).


Expatriation can take two forms: the right of the citizen to sever his ties with the state, and the ability of the state of sever its ties with the citizen. Through several laws and court decisions, both sides of expatriation have been modified. At various times in the early 20th century, [img]https://i2.wp.com/web.archive.org/web/20120919020935im_/http://renunciationguide.com/Images/uslawcourts.jpg?resize=300%2C225[/img]it was held that an American could lose citizenship through acts such as military desertion, failure to pay taxes, acceptance of citizenship of a foreign country, and even a woman's marriage to a foreigner (the Supreme Court [url=http://web.archive.org/web/20120919020935/http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/cgi-bin/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=239&invol=299]ruled[/url] in 1915 that an American woman who marries a foreigner loses her U.S. citizenship while the marriage remains in effect, but would resume citizenship upon the dissolution of marriage).
Finally, in the case of [url=http://web.archive.org/web/20120919020935/http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=387&invol=253]Afroyim v. Rusk[/url] in 1967, the U.S. Supreme Court overturned these rulings, declaring that involuntary loss of citizenship was not constitutional and that nationality can be taken away from a U.S. citizen only if he gives his consent. A later Supreme Court ruling in 1980 ([url=http://web.archive.org/web/20120919020935/http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=444&invol=252]Vance v. Terrazas[/url]) and the subsequent Immigration and Nationality Act passed by Congress in 1986 further clarified that this consent to relinquish citizenship cannot be implied through acts such as voting in a foreign election; rather, there must be a clear preponderance of evidence that the citizen intended to renounce his citizenship.
The law of the United States regarding expatriation has since remained constant:
It is now settled law that every U.S. citizen may renounce citizenship at any time. On the other hand, the government may not withdraw nationality from a citizen based on any actions the citizen takes; loss of citizenship can only result when the there is clear evidence that the person intends to expatriate.
Since 1990, the Department of State policy based on these laws and court rulings has been to revoke an individual's citizenship if and only if an individual appears in person at a U.S. embassy or consulate abroad and explicitly declares his intention to renounce citizenship.



Citations:
Citizenship, Taxation and Expatriation: Background and History

http://www.14th-amendment.com/Statutes_Proclamations/Statutes/FORTIETH_CONGRESS-Sess._II.-Ch._249/Expatriation.pdf

https://www.loc.gov/law/help/statutes-at-large/40th-congress/session-2/c40s2ch249.pdf



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 Posted: Sun Nov 19th, 2017 07:44 am
 
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Very interesting but I was taught that the americas were settled by various european countries, Spain, Portugal, France, England, Scotland, Holland, Denmark, Norway, Sweden - even Russia

The United States were founded some considerable time later by a collection of "locals" - I would not class them as English expatriates.




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 Posted: Sun Nov 19th, 2017 05:24 pm
 
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There were four key European countries that colonized North America.

Spain colonized America because they were searching for gold and silver.  They did find a lot of gold and silver when they conquered the Aztec and Inca Empires.

France
colonized North America because of the great amount of furs they found there.  The French traded with the Indians for furs that they then took back and sold in Europe because people were willing to pay a lot of money for furs in Europe.

The Dutch (from the Netherlands) started a city in America called New Amsterdam.  The English later took over the city and renamed it New York.  The Dutch were merchants (businessmen) and wanted to set up a city that would be an international city of  business and trade.  The fur trade was the first business in New Amsterdam.  New York City is still an international trade center today (It was the World Trade Center in New York that the terrorists flew into).

The English colonized North America for several different economic reasons.  Basically, they found goods that had a market in Europe.  The English that settled New England found timber that was great for building ships.  The English that settled the middle colonies of New York and Pennsylvania found good farmland that was great for growing food that could be sold in Europe.  Finally, the English that colonized the southern colonies found that area was good for growing cash crops like tobacco.

Spain and France had the same religious motivation for colonizing North America.  Both Spain and France sent missionaries to North America with the goal of converting the Indians to Catholic Christianity; Otherwise known I believe as the Spanish Inquisition.

Colonists from England like the Puritans wanted to escape persecution they were experiencing in England.  The Puritans settled in New England and attempted to create a religious utopia where everyone would live by Puritan rules based on the Bible.

The Dutch (from the Netherlands) were Christians, but they did not come to America for a specific religious reason.  However, a thing to remember about the Dutch and religion is that they were very tolerant of other religions [funny because they also were responsible for starting the worst of the slave trade if I recall, so much for toleration of rights] Dutch Slavery: Our Dark Past.  In New Amsterdam (New York), there were both Catholic and Protestant Christians as well as Jews.  As time went on, people of many different faiths settled in New Amsterdam.  Today, people of many different religions live in New York City.

All of their governments took different approaches to their colonizing efforts. These differences created both advantages and disadvantages that profoundly affected the
New World's fate. France and Spain, for instance, were governed by autocratic sovereigns whose rule was absolute [this alone could go so much further in direction]; their colonists went to America as servants of the Crown.

The English colonists, on the other hand, enjoyed far more freedom and were able to govern themselves as long as they followed English law and were loyal to the king [at least until taxation without representation started becoming a thing]. In addition, unlike France and Spain, England encouraged immigration from other nations, thus boosting its colonial population.

I think by 1763 or so the English had established their dominance in North America, having defeated France and Spain in the French and Indian War [a reason I tend to believe in the thoughts that we are STILL a British Colony and under Roman Law as all our law is based upon Roman law and so much through the dark and middle ages the Crown of England was highly influenced by the Catholic church, Until the Magna Carta: Explained by a British Professor in the video below.




NOTE:
"In the mid-1700s the American Colonies were prospering, in part because they were issuing their own money called "Colonial Scrip," which was strictly regulated and did not require the payment of any interest.

 

When the bankers in Great Britain heard this, they turned to the British Parliament, which passed a law prohibiting the Colonial Scrip, forcing the colonists to accept the "debt" or "fiat" money* issued by the Bank of England.

 

Contrary to what history teaches, the American Revolution was not ignited by a tax on tea. According to Benjamin Franklin, it was because "the conditions [became] so reversed that the era of prosperity ended."

 

He said:

"The Colonies would gladly have borne the little tax on tea and other matters had it not been the poverty caused by the bad influence of the English bankers on the Parliament, which has caused in the Colonies hatred of England and the Revolutionary War."

Source:

Further Research Sourcing Materials:


To continue; However, those regions that had been colonized by the French or Spanish would retain national characteristics that linger to this day. Hence the French Creole in Louisiana and of course in the backyard of America - French Canadians. The Spanish influences of Florida and its Islands and the Pacific Southwest and anywhere else you need to push 2 for English.



I am still looking into certain things for myself to be mentally vetted in this but so far, i've found little difference other than some wording of facts and some creative written opinions on the subject so far.


Last edited on Sun Nov 19th, 2017 05:30 pm by Undrstm8ed



____________________
"Be never first, never last and never noticed." - Unknown

"The slave is held most securely when he is held by the chains of his own will and of his own fears, and when he is locked down by his own slavish desires for a comfortable life." - Michael Bunker

"Mundus vult decipi, ergo decipiatur" - ~ attributed to Petronius (Gaius Petronius Arbiter (ca. 27–66 AD))
Roman courtier during the reign of Nero.

"Those who expect to reap the blessings of freedom, must, like men, undergo the fatigue of supporting it." - Thomas Paine


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 Posted: Sun Nov 19th, 2017 08:10 pm
 
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I believe it was the British merchants rather than the bankers that agitated for the Currency Act of 1751 because the colonies were issuing more paper money than was backed by bullion and which depreciated rapidly.

At the end of the day it is always the profit line that drives politics.



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 Posted: Sun Nov 19th, 2017 08:55 pm
 
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Chris wrote: I believe it was the British merchants rather than the bankers that agitated for the Currency Act of 1751 because the colonies were issuing more paper money than was backed by bullion and which depreciated rapidly.

At the end of the day it is always the profit line that drives politics.



Publication of the Board of Trade's representation and Franklin's reply in the Chronicle and the Gazette in Philadelphia. London, March 11, 1767.
Remarks on the Report published in our last Chronicle. By B. F. Esq;
In the Report of the Board of Trade, dated February 9, 1764, the following Reasons are given for restraining the Emission of Paper Bills of Credit in America, as a legal Tender.
1. That it carries the Gold and Silver out of the Province, and so ruins the Country, as Experience has shewn in every Colony, where it has been practised in any great Degree.
2. That the Merchants trading to America have suffered and lost by it.
3. That the Restriction has had a beneficial Effect in New-England.
4. That every Medium of Trade should have an intrinsic Value, which Paper Money has not. Gold and Silver are therefore the fittest for this Medium, as they are an Equivalent, which Paper never can be.
5. That Debtors, in the Assemblies, make Paper Money with fraudulent Views.
6. That in the Middle Colonies, where the Credit of the Paper Money has been best supported, the Bills have never kept to the nominal Value in Circulation, but have constantly depreciated to a certain Degree whenever the Quantity has been increased.
To consider these Reasons in their Order. The first is, That Paper Money carries the Gold and Silver out of the Province, and so ruins the Country, as Experience has shewn in every Colony where it has been practised in any great Degree. This seems to be a mere speculative Opinion, not founded on Fact in any of the Colonies.

The Truth is, that the Balance of their Trade with Britain being generally against them, the Gold and Silver is drawn out to pay that Balance; and then the Necessity of some Medium of Trade has induced the making of Paper Money, which could not be carried away.

Thus, if carrying out all the Gold and Silver ruins a Country, every Colony was ruined before it made Paper Money. But, far from being ruined by it, the Colonies, that have made Use of Paper Money, have been and are all in a thriving Condition.

Their Debt indeed to Britain has increased, because their Numbers, and of course, their Trade, has increased; for all Trade having always a Proportion of Debt outstanding, which is paid in its Turn, while fresh Debt is contracted, that Proportion of Debt naturally increases as the Trade increases; but the Improvement and Increase of Estates in the Colonies has been in a greater Proportion than their Debt.

Citation: Read More


"The second reason is, That the Merchants trading to America have suffered and lost by the Paper Money. This may have been the Case in particular Instances at particular Times and Places, as in South-Carolina about 50 Years since, when the Colony was thought in danger of being destroy'd by the Indians and Spaniards; and the British Merchants, in fear of losing their whole Effects there, call'd precipitately for Remittances; and the Inhabitants to get something lodg'd in safer Countries, gave any Price in Paper Money for Bills of Exchange, whereby the Paper as compar'd with Bills or with Produce or other Effects fit for Exportation, was suddenly and greatly depreciated...."

"The 3d Reason is, That the Restriction has had a beneficial Effect in New England. Particular Circumstances in the New England Colonies made Paper Money less necessary and less convenient to them. They have great and valuable Fisheries of Whale and Cod, by which large Remittances can be made. They are four distinct Governments; but having much mutual Intercourse of Dealings, the Money of each us'd to pass currant in all: But the whole of this common Currency not being under one common Direction, was not so easily kept within due Bounds, the prudent Reserve of one Colony in its Emissions, being rendred useless by Excess in another."

"The 4th. Reason is, That every Medium of Trade should have an intrinsic Value, which Paper Money has not. Gold and Silver are therefore the fittest for this Medium, as they are an Equivalent, which Paper never can be. However fit a particular Thing may be for a particular Purpose, wherever that Thing is not to be had, or not to be had in sufficient Quantity, it becomes necessary to use something else, the fittest that can be got, in lieu of it."

"The 5th Reason is, That Debtors in the Assemblies make Paper Money with fraudulent Views. This is often said by the Adversaries of Paper Money, and if it has been the Case in any particular Colony, that Colony should, on proof of the Fact, be duly punish'd. This however would be no Reason for punishing other Colonies who have not so abused their legislative Powers."

"The 6th. and last Reason is, That in the Middle Colonies, where the Paper Money has been best supported, the Bills have never kept to their nominal Value in Circulation, but have constantly depreciated to a certain Degree whenever the Quantity has been increased. If the Rising of the Value of any particular Commodity wanted for Exportation, is to be considered as a Depreciation of the Values of whatever remains in the Country, then the Rising of Silver above Paper, to that Height of additional Value which its Capability of Exportation only gave it, may be called a Depreciation of the Paper. Even here as Bullion has been wanted or not wanted for Exportation, its Price has varied from 5s. 2d. to 5s. 8d. per Ounce. This is near 10 per Cent; but was it ever said or thought on such an Occasion, that all the Bank Bills, and all the coin'd Silver and all the Gold in the Kingdom were depreciated 10 per Cent? Coin'd Silver is now wanted here for Change, and One per Cent is given for it by some Bankers; are Gold and Bank Notes therefore depreciated 1 per Cent? The Fact in the Middle Colonies is really this. On the Emission of the first Paper Money, a Difference soon arose between that and Silver, the latter having a Property the former had not, a Property always in Demand in the Colonies, to wit, its being fit for a Remittance."

NOTE: This may have attributed to; Section 8 permits Congress to coin money and to regulate its value. Section 10 denies states the right to coin or to print their own money. The framers clearly intended a national monetary system based on coin and for the power to regulate that system to rest only with the federal government. The delegates at the Constitutional convention rejected a clause that would have given Congress the authority to issue paper money. They also rejected a measure that would have specifically denied that ability to the federal government (Hammond, 92). Although the Constitution does not state that the federal government has the power to print paper currency, the Supreme Court in McCulloch vs Maryland (1819) ruled unanimously that the Second Bank of the United States and the banknotes it issued on behalf of the federal government were Constitutional. If the federal government only is permitted to issue money, coin or paper, then how could state banks issue money? State banks did not coin money, nor did they print any "official" national currency. However, state banks could print bills of credit in exchange for specie deposits. These notes would bear the issuing bank's name and entitle the bearer to the note's face value in gold or silver upon presentation to the bank. State bank notes were a form of representative money; they were not gold or silver, but they represented it. The notes were more convenient for conducting large transactions than their specie counterparts, and, more importantly for the extension of credit, could be produced easily whereas the gold and silver stock of the nation was relatively small and for the most part declining (Hixson, 12-13). The Supreme Court ruled in 1837 in Briscoe vs Bank of Kentucky that state banks and the notes they issued were also constitutional.
Citations:


31 USC 315B provided that: "No gold shall after January 30, 1934, be coined, and no gold coin shall after January 30, 1934, be paid out or delivered by the United States; provided however, that coinage may continue to be executed by the mints of the United States for foreign countries". This exception was necessary because foreign countries, being recognized or sovereign, could not be held to the internal public policy of the United States. HJR-192 was binding only upon those individuals who were beneficiaries of public policy; that being the privilege of limited liability for payment of debt arising out of participation in the Federal Reserve Public Credit System.


Which brings up of course again arguments later on in 1933, of HJR 192. and if I may quote (again)..


On June 5, 1933, Congress enacted HJR-192 to suspend the gold standard and to abrogate the gold clause. This resolution declared that "Whereas the holding or dealing in gold affect the public interest, and are therefore subject to proper regulation and restriction; and whereas the existing emergency has disclosed that provisions of obligations which purport to give the obligee a right to require payment in gold or a particular kind of coin or currency. . . are inconsistent with the declared policy of congress. . . in the payment of debts.

This resolution declared that any obligation requiring "payment in gold or a particular kind of coin or currency, or in an amount in money policy; and . . . Every obligation heretofore or hereafter incurred, shall be discharged upon payment, dollar for dollar, in any coin or currency which at the time of payment is legal tender for public and private debts."

A farm control bill around the same time period had attached to it a clause making Federal Reserve notes legal tender. In 1937, the Supreme Court struck down the Farm Control Act, thus carrying with it the legal tender status of Federal Reserve notes. Prior to 1933, Federal Reserve notes were used for inter-bank transfers. Around 1945, Congress passed a bill which called for the withdrawl of Federal Reserve notes from public circulation; but, they are still with us. . . *NOTE that the words do not talk about "payment" of debt, but clearly states that "Every Obligation . . . Shall be discharged."

In the case of Stanek v. White, 172 Minn. 390, 215 H.W. 784, the court explained the legal distinction between the words "payment" and "discharge": "There is a distinction between a `debt discharged' and a `debt paid.' When discharged the debt still exists though divested of its character as a legal obligation during the operation of the discharge. Something of the original vitality of the debt continues to exist, which may be transferred, even though the transferee takes it subject to its disability incident to the discharge. The fact that it carries something which may be a consideration for a new promise to pay, so as to make an otherwise worthless promise a legal obligation, makes it the subject of transfer by assignment."

Thus, it is clear that, as a result of HJR 192 and from that day forward (June 5, 1933), no one has been able to pay a debt. The only thing they can do is tender in transfer of debts, and the debt is perpetual. The suspension of the gold standard, and prohibition against paying debts, removed the substance for our Common Law to operate on, and created a void, as far as the law is concerned. This substance was replaced with a "Public National Credit" system where debt is money (The Federal Reserve calls it "monetized debt") over which the only jurisdiction at is Admiralty and Maritime.

HJR-192 was implemented immediately. The day after President Roosevelt signed the resolution the treasury offered the public new government securities, minus the traditional "payable in gold" clause. Article I, Section 10, Clause 1, proscribes the States making any thing but gold and silver coin a tender in payment of debt -- but, this Article does not contain an absolute prohibition against the States making something else a tender in transfer of debt.

HJR-192 prohibits payment of debt and substitutes, in its place, a discharge of an obligation -- thereby not only subverting, but totally bypassing the "absolute prohibition" so carefully engineered into the Constitution. There is, now, nothing for this Article to operate on, just as there is nothing for Common Law to operate on. Perpetual debt, bills, notes, cheques and credits fall within a totally different jurisdiction than contemplated by Article I, Section 10, Clause 1 -- and that jurisdiction belongs exclusively to the Law of Admiralty and Maritime. Now, it is easy to see how "bills" as plenty as oak leaves, "polluted the laws after the War For Independence, as described by Peletiah Webster". This is how we lost access to substantive Common Law -- the very law the Minute Men fought to regain.

HJR-192 places every person who deals in the public national credit in the legal position of a merchant, and the only jurisdiction over any controversy involving this subject matter is Admiralty and Maritime. Obviously, if we cannot pay our debts at law, we are also benefiting from limited liability under the Limited Liability Act when we use this credit-- and, that is marine insurance!

The definitions of "liability" and "insure" will help convince us of this fact -- in analyzing these definitions, keep in mind the distinction between "payment" and "discharge". Liability: The word is a broad term. It has been defined to mean: all character of debts and obligations. . . any kind of debt or liability, either absolute or contingent, express or implied . . . condition which creates a duty to perform an act immediately or in the future . . . duty to pay money or to perform some other service . . . the state of being bound or obligated in law or justice to do, pay, or make good something. "Insure: "To engage to indemnify a person against pecuniary loss from specified perils or possible liability".


Which now begs some questions.

QUESTION #1: Who do you suppose took possession of the treasury of the State of Pa. on June 5, 1933, -- the moment HJR-192 made it impossible for the State of Pennsylvania to pay its debts?

QUESTION #2: Land titles being allodial in Pennsylvania, what was the State Assembly's authority and jurisdiction to pledge these allodiums to the Federal Reserve as security for loan contracts from the Federal Government?

QUESTION #3: If the individual citizens of Pennsylvania were indeed "sovereign" under the Common Law -- What was the authority and jurisdiction of the State Assembly to pledge their labor to the Federal Reserve pool?

And your last statement could not be more true Sir...

Last edited on Sun Nov 19th, 2017 08:58 pm by Undrstm8ed



____________________
"Be never first, never last and never noticed." - Unknown

"The slave is held most securely when he is held by the chains of his own will and of his own fears, and when he is locked down by his own slavish desires for a comfortable life." - Michael Bunker

"Mundus vult decipi, ergo decipiatur" - ~ attributed to Petronius (Gaius Petronius Arbiter (ca. 27–66 AD))
Roman courtier during the reign of Nero.

"Those who expect to reap the blessings of freedom, must, like men, undergo the fatigue of supporting it." - Thomas Paine


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 Posted: Tue Nov 21st, 2017 03:50 am
 
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A "person". A typical definition of "person" in a statute usually looks something like this:
Person - The term person includes an individual, partnership, joint venture, limited liability company, association, cooperative, corporation whether or not organized for profit, estate, or trust.
The first thing that is important to note about that definition is that other than the word "individual" (which we will discuss in a moment), every one of the entities listed is clearly a "statutory legal fiction". A statutory legal fiction is a legal entity (called a "person") that exists because the legislature has allowed it to come into existence by passing a law that authorizes its creation. The most commonly recognized "statutory fiction" is a corporation. We would suggest that you re-read the bolded sentence as many times as is necessary, and let it sink in. [A quick and easy test to determine if something is a legal fiction is this: If it can sue you in court, but it has no flesh and blood, it's a legal fiction.]
Because statutory fictions are created by the State, they are subject to absolute regulation by the State solely on the basis of "public policy" considerations. [In this article we will only be addressing statutory fictions. There are non-statutory fictions, such as Common Law Trusts, which are not generally subject to State regulation as are statutory fictions.] Once again, we would suggest that you re-read the bolded sentence above as many times as necessary to lock it in your mind.
Some corporations are referred to as "private corporations". This phrase is misleading. A "private corporation" is not "private" in the way most people use that word. In law, the phrase "private corporation" is merely a way of distinguishing a corporation as not being listed with the Securities and Exchange Commission for "public trading" of its shares on a stock exchange. Because corporations (and all other statutory fictions) are created by the State, they are never "private" in the way most people understand and use the word "private".
Since all of the words used within the definition of "person" appear to be "legal fictions", how then should we view the word "individual"? And remember, we are ascertaining the proper meaning and application of a tax statute through context.
The first question that we would ask is whether or not an "individual" is a Citizen. [See the [url=https://web.archive.org/web/20051215083200/http://www.originalintent.org:80/edu/citizenship.php]Citizenship[/url] page within this site for details on "Citizen".] Since a Citizen of a state of the Union is definitely not exercising a privilege when buying or selling his own property in a private transaction, then a Citizen cannot be the "individual" in a definition dealing with an excise [privilege] tax - at least not in his private capacity. But what if the "individual" is a man (Citizen or not) who holds a position of authority and responsibility within one of those legal fictions (such as a corporate officer)? Let's see if that theory holds water!
Chapter 75 of the Internal Revenue Code specifies various criminal tax offenses. The term "person" is used in virtually every section of the chapter. After all, since a "legal fiction" can't be put in jail, there has to be someone that the government can ultimately hold accountable for wrongdoing.
So what is the definition of "person" for IRS tax crimes?
26 USC §7343: Person - The term ''person'' as used in this chapter includes an officer or employee of a corporation, or a member or employee of a partnership, who as such officer, employee, or member is under a duty to perform the act in respect of which the violation occurs.
Ah...so when a real-live-flesh-and-blood person (known in law as a "natural person") is held accountable for criminal non-compliance with the law, he is held accountable only in his capacity as the officer or employee, under a duty to perform, on behalf of the "legal fiction".
Does it not then seem reasonable that the "individual" listed in the sales tax statute is simply a natural person who is under a duty to perform, or not perform, an act regarding the tax being imposed upon the legal fiction?





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